QUOTE (katrina24 @ 05/12/2012, 10:15 PM)
Hi again, my understanding is that, in the DSM IV, to qualify for a diagnosis of Aspergers you can't have cognitive impairments. From this I infer that the distribution of IQ would not follow a 'normal' bell curve (because the bottom half of the curve is missing). I also believe that in the DSM V Aspergers will no longer be a diagnosis. Happy to have my understanding corrected by someone more knowledgeable though.
Ha yes I did know the bit about the bottom of the curve, cos if you have intellectual impairment you are excluded from the diagnosis. But it made my question less neat. Sorry.
I will redo.....
Does the distribution of IQs among people with Asperger's follow a normal distribution apart from at the lower range? I am sure if I actually knew some stats I could say that in a nicer way!